Anyone who doesn't think that the Ugandan provisions qualify as genocide by the actual legal definition is a moron. The only available arguments are:Wikipedia wrote:While a precise definition varies among genocide scholars, a legal definition is found in the 1948 United Nations Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide (CPPCG). Article 2 of this convention defines genocide as "any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such: killing members of the group; causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group; deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life, calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part; imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group; [and] forcibly transferring children of the group to another group."
- Gays don't qualify as a "national group" because they are essentially evenly distributed through society.
- The conditions of murdering all the people who have a lot of gay sex and imprisoning everyone who fails to be sufficiently helpful in the rounding up and eradication of everyone who has gay sex more than once is not calculated to physically destroy the gay population because gay people are entirely capable of never having sex in their whole lives.
- Since gay sex doesn't create births anyway, no amount of murdering gays this generation will meaningfully impact how many gays are born next generation.
I think that PR was trying to claim that merely creating conditions that were designed to be completely intolerable to gays and then systematically eliminating part of the population wasn't genocide because you weren't killing them all at once. But the UN's own legal definition of genocide specifically rejects that argument. So at best we could assume that PR is trying to play arm chair lawyer, arguing for a narrow legal reading of a law h obviously has not read.
-Username17